The verse states, “Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.”
(2 Corinthians 3:17 NAS95)
The assertion is simple, Trinitarians believe that Jesus isn't the Holy Spirit, but this verse "clearly" indicates that the Risen Jesus is the Holy Spirit. "The Lord" must be Jesus and "the Spirit" must be the Holy Spirit.
As usual, the interpretation that is presented by Trinitarians to reconcile this passage (not just with our Theology) with the entirety of the New Testament will be presented by Oneness and Modalists as inappropriate and unfounded. For example, Trinitarians have offered the interpretation that "The Lord" is a reference to Yahweh, and thus the passage is saying that "Yahweh is the Spirit". Are the Modalists correct? Is this absolutely inappropriate to make this interpretation?
If there is a way to recognize that Paul isn't using "The Lord" as a typical reference to the Person, Jesus Christ, surely it would become evident. And in fact, when we examine the context we are forced to conclude Paul isn't using "The Lord" as a typical reference to the second Person of the Trinity or at least a typical reference to Christ that exists in a vacuum.
How can we conclude this from the context? Let's broaden the citation:
As usual, the interpretation that is presented by Trinitarians to reconcile this passage (not just with our Theology) with the entirety of the New Testament will be presented by Oneness and Modalists as inappropriate and unfounded. For example, Trinitarians have offered the interpretation that "The Lord" is a reference to Yahweh, and thus the passage is saying that "Yahweh is the Spirit". Are the Modalists correct? Is this absolutely inappropriate to make this interpretation?
If there is a way to recognize that Paul isn't using "The Lord" as a typical reference to the Person, Jesus Christ, surely it would become evident. And in fact, when we examine the context we are forced to conclude Paul isn't using "The Lord" as a typical reference to the second Person of the Trinity or at least a typical reference to Christ that exists in a vacuum.
How can we conclude this from the context? Let's broaden the citation:
“Are we beginning to commend ourselves again? Or do we need, as some, letters of commendation to you or from you? You are our letter, written in our hearts, known and read by all men; being manifested that you are a letter of Christ, cared for by us, written not with ink but with the Spirit of the living God, not on tablets of stone but on tablets of human hearts.”
(2 Corinthians 3:1–3 NAS95)
What does the phrase "Not on tablets of stone" remind you of? The writing of the Ten Commandments. And the one who writes on the tablets of human hearts is the Holy Spirit. This is important information so far.
“Such confidence we have through Christ toward God. Not that we are adequate in ourselves to consider anything as coming from ourselves, but our adequacy is from God, who also made us adequate as servants of a new covenant, not of the letter but of the Spirit; for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life.
But if the ministry of death, in letters engraved on stones, came with glory, so that the sons of Israel could not look intently at the face of Moses because of the glory of his face, fading as it was, how will the ministry of the Spirit fail to be even more with glory?”
(2 Corinthians 3:4–8 NAS95)
We are starting to get a glimpse at the second writing of the Ten Commandments of Exodus 34. We also have a significant understanding of the purpose of the letters written on the tablets and not granting life, but its the Holy Spirit who gives life (c.f. John 3:3 - 8, Titus 3:5). The ministry of death, in letters engraved on stone came with glory, and the sons of Israel could not look intently at the face of Moses because of the glory, though that glory had a fading aspect to it. So what did Moses do?
“For if the ministry of condemnation has glory, much more does the ministry of righteousness abound in glory. For indeed what had glory, in this case has no glory because of the glory that surpasses it. For if that which fades away was with glory, much more that which remains is in glory.
Therefore having such a hope, we use great boldness in our speech, and are not like Moses, who used to put a veil over his face so that the sons of Israel would not look intently at the end of what was fading away.”
(2 Corinthians 3:9–13 NAS95)
First, there was fading glory with the Old Covenant, but there's abounding glory with the New. And Moses put a veil over his face in order for Israel to not look intently at the end of what was fading away.
When we examine Exodus 34, we find out that every time Moses went in to speak with Yahweh, he would take the veil off of his face (Ex 34:34).
When we examine Exodus 34, we find out that every time Moses went in to speak with Yahweh, he would take the veil off of his face (Ex 34:34).
“But their minds were hardened; for until this very day at the reading of the old covenant the same veil remains unlifted, because it is removed in Christ. But to this day whenever Moses is read, a veil lies over their heart; but whenever a person turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away.”
(2 Corinthians 3:14–16 NAS95)
Notice what verse 16 says, "but whenever a persons to the Lord, the veil is taken away". This is a direct reference to Exodus 34:34, of which Yahweh is "the LORD". Every time Moses would return to Yahweh, the veil was lifted. But how can we draw an even more direct conclusion that "The Lord" of 1 Corinthians 3:16 - 17 is a specific reference to Yahweh? The fact that in all but one reference the definite article is not used with "kurios (Lord)". This is exactly how Yahweh is translated in the Septuagint and is how Yahweh is translated in Exodus 34:34.
So why is the article used in the phrase "The Lord is the Spirit"? To employ the definite construction and to explain who it was that Moses was communicating with, namely, the Spirit of Yahweh. This is similar to the way in which the Author of Hebrews attributes the speaking of Yahweh in Jeremiah 31:33, 34 to the Holy Spirit in Hebrews 10:16, 17. It could aslo be understood in the demonstrative pronoun sense to indicate "This Lord" as in this reference to Yahweh is the Holy Spirit.
The point of the passage is to indicate that we as Christians have a similar encounter with the Holy Spirit when we turn to Christ (who is Yahweh). This encounter is a spiritual one, unlike the one Moses had, but similar in the sense that we then have the Holy Spirit write the letter of Christ on our hearts (2 Cor 3:3 mentioned above) which is the ministry of life, in like manner that the Spirit wrote the letters of the law on tablets to give to Moses (again also a reference to the Holy Spirit promising the Law to be written by Him on our hearts and minds in the New Covenant in Jeremiah 31, whereas the Holy Spirit for the Old Covenant wrote the Law on the tablets; the parallels couldn't be clearer).
This is further confirmed by verse 18 of 2 Corinthians 3,
So why is the article used in the phrase "The Lord is the Spirit"? To employ the definite construction and to explain who it was that Moses was communicating with, namely, the Spirit of Yahweh. This is similar to the way in which the Author of Hebrews attributes the speaking of Yahweh in Jeremiah 31:33, 34 to the Holy Spirit in Hebrews 10:16, 17. It could aslo be understood in the demonstrative pronoun sense to indicate "This Lord" as in this reference to Yahweh is the Holy Spirit.
The point of the passage is to indicate that we as Christians have a similar encounter with the Holy Spirit when we turn to Christ (who is Yahweh). This encounter is a spiritual one, unlike the one Moses had, but similar in the sense that we then have the Holy Spirit write the letter of Christ on our hearts (2 Cor 3:3 mentioned above) which is the ministry of life, in like manner that the Spirit wrote the letters of the law on tablets to give to Moses (again also a reference to the Holy Spirit promising the Law to be written by Him on our hearts and minds in the New Covenant in Jeremiah 31, whereas the Holy Spirit for the Old Covenant wrote the Law on the tablets; the parallels couldn't be clearer).
This is further confirmed by verse 18 of 2 Corinthians 3,
“But we all, with unveiled face, beholding as in a mirror the glory of the Lord, are being transformed into the same image from glory to glory, just as from the Lord, the Spirit.”
(2 Corinthians 3:18 NAS95)
To conclude:
Exodus 34 as interpreted by Paul in 2 Corinthians presents this reality:
For the Old Covenant, The Spirit of Yahweh wrote the letter of Yahweh on tablets as a ministry of death
(c.f. Romans 7:9; Galatians 2:19) Yet Moses communicated with Yahweh and reflected the glory of Yahweh which glory faded from Moses
For the New Covenant, The Spirit of Yahweh wrote the letter of Christ on our hearts as a ministry of life, and we reflect the glory of Christ which abounds.
Has this verse ended Trinitarianism? Not even close, it actually stands to confirm our belief in the absolute Deity of the Holy Spirit.
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